01 November 2006

Baptism, Confession, Communion and the Bible

Sacrament - a visible sign instituted by Christ, by which grace is conveyed to our souls

Three things are necessary for something to be a sacrament: a visible sign, invisible grace, and instituted by Christ

From the Catechism of the Catholic Church:
#774 seven sacraments are the signs and instruments through which the Holy Spirit spreads the grace of Jesus Christ, the Head, throughout the Church, His body
#1084 Christ acts through the sacraments to communicate His grace
#1116 actions of the Holy Spirit at work in Christ's body, the Church
#1127 in them, Christ Himself is at work

They are not magic, not items on a checklist which Catholics must do to go to Heaven, they are the means by which Jesus Christ, through the Holy Spirit, communicates His grace which He merited, to the members of His Body, through which we can grow in holiness. It is through the blood in our bodies that the cells receive life and nourishment. It is through the sacraments that we receive grace, the very life of God Himself. If a human body part is cut off from the blood it dies. If we are cut off from the blood of Christ, we die. Sin keeps God's grace from working in our lives. If we remain in a state of sin, eventually we will die.

How are we today "washed in the blood of Christ"? Is Jesus still bleeding? NO! We are washed in the blood of Christ through the holy Spirit! How? Protestants do not have an answer. Catholics know that it's through the sacraments that he washes us in His blood and He gives us His grace. It is the same concept. There are non-Catholics who believe in the sacraments. Orthodox, Lutheran, Episcopalian, some Methodist and Presbyterian all have some understanding of the sacraments, but not always in the same way as Catholics. Fundamentalists, evangelicals, and non-denoms generally will have NOTHING to do with the concept of sacrament.



Baptism:

Most non-sacramental protestants believe baptism is symbolic, a gesture that a saved person makes to the community to show his.her commitment to Christ. That it is symbolic only. No washing away of sin, no infusion of grace, nothing at all supernatural. Sacramentalists believe through baptism our sins are washed away, Jesus Christ communicates grace, we are spiritually reborn and made members of the body of Christ; and we are saved. Who is right? Is baptism symbolic? Or does it communicate grace, etc...?

What does the Bible say? You can look and look and you won't find a single verse that says baptism in symbolic, or is to be done as a symbolic act to show one's commitment to Christ. If baptism IS symbolic, the Bible should say that! So...does Baptism wash away sin? Through Baptism do we receive the Holy Spirit?

Ezekiel 36:25-27 And I will put clean water on you so that you may be clean: from all your unclean ways and from all your images I will make you clean. 26 And I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you: I will take away the heart of stone from your flesh, and give you a heart of flesh. 27 And I will put my spirit in you, causing you to be guided by my rules, and you will keep my orders and do them.

Does the OT still apply? Is is a foreshadowing of the NT, not completely divorced from it. (OT is the NT concealed, NT is the OT revealed)

2 Tim 3:16 Every Scripture which comes from God is of profit for teaching, for training, for guiding, for education in righteousness:

The passage in Ezekiel says that this is an outward sign to bring about an inward change. This is a foreshadowing of NT baptism.

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said to them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ, for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. .
There is no symbolic language here, this is real! God was preparing us in the OT for what He would do in the NT.
Acts 22:16 And now, why are you waiting? get up, and be baptized for the washing away of your sins, giving worship to his name.

Is it through baptism that we become members of the body of Christ? Or do we become Christians by accepting Jesus as Lord and Saviour? There is not a single passage in the Bible that says we become Christians by "accepting Jesus into our hearts as our personal Lord and Saviour"! That passage does not exist.

It IS important to have a relationship with Christ; however, it is possible to have a relationship with Jesus and still end up rejecting/betraying Him - look at what happened to Judas. It is not a personal relationship alone that makes us Christians.

1 Corinthians 12:13 For through the baptism of the one Spirit we were all formed into one body, Jews or Greeks, servants or free men, and were all made full of the same Spirit.
Galatians 3:27 For as many of you as were baptized into Christ did put on Christ.

Baptism makes us members of the Body of Christ. Baptism is the new entrance into the covenant with God, just as circumcision was under the old covenant.

Colossians 2:11-12 in Him ye were also circumcised with a circumcision not made with hands, in the putting off of the body of the flesh, in the circumcision of Christ; 12 having been buried with him in baptism, wherein ye were also raised with him through faith in the working of God, who raised him from the dead.

Does baptism save us?
I Peter 3:20-21 Who, in the days of Noah, went against God's orders; but God in his mercy kept back the punishment, while Noah got ready the ark, in which a small number, that is to say eight persons, got salvation through water: 21 And baptism, of which this is an image, now gives you salvation, not by washing clean the flesh, but by making you free from the sense of sin before God, through the coming again of Jesus Christ from the dead;
John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except one be born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God!

Jesus was not talking about natural birth when He said, "born of water." Where does Scripture say that water means amniotic fluid? Nowhere! That is not reading the passage in context. That is an interpretation which is not supported by the whole of Scripture. Right after the conversation with Nicodemus:

John 3:22 After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized.

Baptism is the context in which Jesus says "born of water and the Spirit." If you read any account of Jesus' baptism, it is in water, and what happens when Jesus comes up out of the water? The Spirit descends upon Him. Water + the Spirit = Baptism.

Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit:

It does NOT say "make disciples, by getting them to accept Jesus Christ as their Lord and Saviour." Why is baptism given such paramount importance in Jesus' final instructions to the apostles if it is only symbolic? That makes no sense whatsoever. Scripture does, however, clearly and directly support the teaching that baptism saves us, makes us members of the Body of Christ, washes away our sin, and gives us the Holy Spirit.

Confession:
Most protestants, if not all, believe you should confess your sins straight to God. Forget all this nonsense about going through a priest. BUT what does the Bible say?

Leviticus 5:5-6 And it shall be, when he shall be guilty in one of these [things], that he shall confess that wherein he hath sinned: 6 and he shall bring his trespass-offering to the LORD for his sin which he hath sinned, a female from the flock, a lamb or a goat, for a sin-offering; and the priest shall make atonement for him as concerning his sin.

To be forgiven we must confess, and there is penance to be performed after our sins are confessed (a guilt offering), and a person could not go straight to God to have his sins forgiven. They had to go to a priest. (Remember 2 Timothy 3:16?)

Hebrews 10:1 For the law having a shadow of the good [things] to come, not the very image (true form) of the things, can never with the same sacrifices year by year, which they offer continually, make perfect them that draw nigh.

The OT practices should give us a clue as to the NT practices. The are a shadow of the things to come. In the Old covenant, God was training His people, giving them clues of the things to come. In the OT we had confession of sin, penance, and the involvement of a priest in the OT.

I John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

Does it say we are to confess our sins to God alone and not to man? No!

James 5:16 Confess therefore your sins one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The supplication of a righteous man availeth much in its working.

It says confess our sins to one another, not JUST to God. BUT do we go around confessing to just anyone? Doesn't it make sense for us to forgive our sins to those who have the power to forgive our sins? Whoa! Men can forgive sins? This is a major stumbling block for non-Catholics. They will say (and they're correct) that only God can forgive sins. Catholics also believe this. They also believe that God can and does exercise this power, but he does it through men. It is God's power, but He exercises it through men.

Mark 2:7 Why does this man thus speak? he blasphemes: who can forgive sins but one, [even] God?

Yes, God alone can forgive sins. But this statement was spoken by the scribes, who had a limited understanding of God's power. Jesus goes on to point this out. To say that ONLY God can forgive sins puts you on the same side with the scribes. Generally speaking, this is not a good thing.

Matthew 9:3-6, 8 And behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemes. 4 And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts? 5 For which is easier, to say, Thy sins are forgiven; or to say, Arise, and walk? 6 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath authority on earth to forgive sins (then saith he to the sick of the palsy), Arise, and take up thy bed, and go up unto thy house. ...8 But when the multitudes saw it, they were afraid, and glorified God, who had given such authority unto men. (Note that it is men, plural.)

God gave this authority to MEN, not just to a MAN. What authority did God give them? The authority on earth to forgive sins.

John 20:21-23 Jesus therefore said to them again, Peace [be] unto you: as the Father has sent me, even so send I you. 22 And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and said unto them, Receive ye the Holy Spirit: 23 whose soever sins you forgive, they are forgiven unto them; whose soever [sins] you retain, they are retained.

The apostles were given the authority to forgive sins! Why give them that authority if people will not be confessing sins to them? How can you forgive/retain someone's sins unless they are confessing their sins to you? The priest is an integral part of how God set up the system for receiving the forgiveness of sin. The sacraments are ALL instituted by Christ Himself.

Holy Communion/Lord's Supper/Eucharist:

The majority of people believe the Eucharist/Lord's Supper is merely a symbolic act in which we remember what Jesus did for us. The sacramentalist will say that it is MUCH MUCH more! It IS the body, blood, soul and divinity of Christ. Is it a symbol or is it Christ?

Malachi 1:11 For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name [shall be] great among the (Gentile) nations; and in every place incense [shall be] offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name [shall be] great among the nations, saith the LORD of hosts.

This is a prophecy. At the time of Malachi, a pure offering was NOT made to the LORD among the Gentile nations. It was only after Christ that God's name was made great among the Gentiles and among all the nations.

Incense is to be a part of worship. It also says a pure offering will be made - Jesus is the ONLY pure offering. We "offer" or re-present (not re-enact or re-crucify) the offering that Jesus made on the cross to the Father in Heaven. In the world-wide Church, this offering is made perpetually in all nations at all times.

John 6:53-55 Jesus therefore said unto them, Most assuredly, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, ye have not life in yourselves. 54 He that eats my flesh and drinks my blood hath eternal life: and I will raise him up at the last day. 55 For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.

Sacramentalists believe Jesus is speaking literally. Non-sacramentalists do not.

Matthew 26:26 And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed, and brake it; and he gave to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. 27 And he took a cup, and gave thanks, and gave to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; 28 for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many unto remission of sins.
Mark 14:22 And as they were eating, he took bread, and when he had blessed, he brake it, and gave to them, and said, Take ye: this is my body. 23 And he took a cup, and when he had given thanks, he gave to them: and they all drank of it. 24 And he said unto them, This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many.
Luke 22:19-20 And he took bread, and when he had given thanks, he brake it, and gave to them, saying, This is my body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of me. 20 And the cup in like manner after supper, saying, This cup is the new covenant in my blood, [even] that which is poured out for you.

In all of these accounts, Jesus uses the word "is," not "is similar to" or "is symbolic of" or "represents."

1 Corinthians 11:23-29 For I received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus in the night in which he was betrayed took bread; 24 and when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, This is my body, which is for you: this do in remembrance of me, 25 In like manner also the cup, after supper, saying, This cup is the new covenant in my blood: this do, as often as ye drink [it], in remembrance of me. 26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink the cup, ye proclaim the Lord`s death till he come. 27 Wherefore whosoever shall eat the bread or drink the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord. 28 But let a man prove himself, and so let him eat of the bread, and drink of the cup. 29 For he that eateth and drinketh in an unowrthy manner, eateth and drinketh judgment unto himself, if he discern not the body.

We can see in all of these passages that Jesus was speaking literally, not symbolically. How can you be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord if it's only a symbol of the body and blood of the Lord? How can you discern the Lord's body if it's not really there, but only symbolic?

John 6:63 It is the spirit that giveth life; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I have spoken unto you are spirit, and they are life.

This is often the proof-text that Jesus was speaking symbolically. The words "spirit" and "symbolic" are NOT interchangeable. It's not the 'Father, Son and Holy Symbolic.' Nowhere in Scripture does the word spirit ever mean symbolic. The spirit is as real as it gets. If John 6:63 is taken symbolically, why did many disciples leave Him over it, in v66? (Upon this many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.) They understood him literally, as did the Jews in v52 (The Jews therefore strove one with another, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?)

John 6:67 Jesus said therefore unto the twelve, Would ye also go away? 68 Simon Peter answered him, Lord, to whom shall we go? thou hast the words of eternal life. 69 And we have believed and know that thou art the Holy One of God.

Peter did not reply, "Oh, no Lord! We know you're only speaking symbolically!" If Jesus was not speaking literally, why did he let so many disciples walk away?

Matthew 13:10-11, 18; Matthew 13:24-33, 36; Matthew 15:15, and Matthew 17:10, 19 are some of the parable passages. Whenever the disciples did not understand something, they either asked for an explanation or Jesus volunteered the explanation. We do not see that happening in John 6. Jesus was speaking literally and they knew it!

If we give John 6 a symbolic meaning:
John 6:53-55 Jesus therefore said unto them, Most assuredly, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, ye have not life in yourselves. 54 He that eats my flesh and drinks my blood hath eternal life: and I will raise him up at the last day. 55 For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.

Problem #1 - How do we symbolically eat his flesh and drink his blood? If we symbolically eat his body and drink his blood by eating bread and grape juice will we have eternal life? Are we guaranteed heaven by eating bread and drinking grape juice?

Problem #2 - In v 60, why is this a hard saying if it is symbolic? If Jesus was explaining in v63 that his words were symbolic, why did they leave him in v66? Why would they consider it such a hard saying that they walked away from Jesus over it if it is symbolic? How many people today leave a church over the idea of having to eat a small piece of bread and drink some grape juice?? It is not a "hard saying" to assent to symbolism. These disciples who walked away in v66 SAW the feeding of the multitudes just the day before Jesus said this! They also had just seen Him walk on the water! Do you think after they had seen these miracles that they would walk away over having to symbolically eat His Body and Blood? They had also seen Jesus turn water to wine, heal the sick, cast out demons - they had even healed the sick and cast out demons themselves - and they walked away from Jesus because they had to symbolically eat His flesh and drink His blood????

Why didn't Jesus clear up the misunderstanding if he was speaking symbolically like he had at other times? If all the people who heard Jesus speak these words took Him literally, why don't people today, 2000 years later, believe that His words were symbolic? Because it IS a hard teaching! They reject the real meaning of Jesus' words just like the Jews and many disciples rejected the real meaning of His words 2000 years ago - because is IS a hard teaching.

John 6:30-35 They said therefore unto him, What then doest thou for a sign, that we may see, and believe thee? what workest thou? 31 Our fathers ate the manna in the wilderness; as it is written, He gave them bread out of heaven to eat. 32 Jesus therefore said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, It was not Moses that gave you the bread out of heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread out of heaven. 33 For the bread of God is that which cometh down out of heaven, and giveth life unto the world. 34 They said therefore unto him, Lord, evermore give us this bread. 35 Jesus said unto them. I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall not hunger, and he that believeth on me shall never thirst.

John 6:61-62 But Jesus knowing in himself that his disciples murmured at this, said unto them, Doth this cause you to stumble? 62 [What] then if ye should behold the Son of man ascending where he was before?

Here Jesus tells us that the miracle of whatever he means by eating his flesh and drinking his blood is something GREATER than the manna from Heaven and more miraculous than His ascension into Heaven! Is eating a piece of bread and drinking some grape juice more miraculous than Jesus ascending into Heaven on a cloud? Is the bread and wine of the Eucharist actually being changed into the body, blood, soul and divinity of Jesus Christ a greater miracle than the manna in the desert, or His ascension? Yes! An interpretation which renders Jesus' words symbolic just doesn't make any sense. Everyone took Jesus literally because He was speaking literally.

John 6:51 I am the living bread which came down out of heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: yea and the bread which I will give is my flesh, for the life of the world.
John 6:58b he that eateth this bread shall live for ever.

  • Was the flesh that Jesus gave for the world real or symbolic?
  • Was Jesus' death on the cross real or symbolic?
  • Was the flesh on the cross real or symbolic?
  • Was the blood He poured out for us on the cross real or symbolic?
If you believe Jesus is speaking symbolically in John 6 or at the Last Supper, then the conclusion you MUST come to is that Jesus did not REALLY die on the cross, but it was a symbolic representation of it. You cannot have it both ways. This IS my body. This IS my blood. Amen.